1. As per MARPOL
Annex -1 definition, ???Special area??? means:
A.
Some specific areas where coastal state
legislation doesn???t allow any bilge water/slop discharges
B.
Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge
water/slop discharges are allowed
C. Areas as defined by Annex-1, where
special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by
oil
D.
Areas as defined by Coastal state
regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory methods are adopted for the
prevention of sea pollution by oil
2. In which of the
following documents on board, authentic information about the circumstances and
procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?
A.
Safety Management Manual
B. The Ship Captain's Medical Guide
C.
First Aid Booklet
D.
Code of safe working practices
3. Which of the
following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.
Fire control plan/booklet
B. Maneuvering booklet
C.
Minimum safe manning document
D.
Records of hours of rest
4. When using the
rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
A.
passed around so all can drink
B. poured overboard because of salt
washed off the canopy
C.
saved to be used at a later time
D.
used to boil food
5. Which of the
following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the
discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?
A.
Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of
a ship
B.
Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
C.
Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship
because of Master???s fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all
reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
D. Discharge resulting due to damage to
the ship not because of Master???s fault, but because of a third party???s
fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize
discharge
6. Under OPA 90, who
is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the
event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?
A.
Master
B.
USCG
C. Qualified Individual
D.
Technical Superintendent
7. As per definition
of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:
A.
Crude oil and other dirty oils
B.
Crude oil alongwith some refined products
C. Crude oil only
D.
Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times
dirty and clean oil products also
8. Which of the
following organs of IMO consists of all member states?
A.
Council
B. Assembly
C.
Facilitation Committee
D.
None of the above
9. The maximum
allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________
A.
13.5 Kgs
B. 23 Kgs
C.
9 Kgs
D.
46 Kgs
10. Under which
maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
A.
CLC 1992
B.
Fund convention
C.
LLMC
D. OPA 1990
11. If you observe
any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer
operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?
A.
Wait for the person-in-charge to act.
B.
Notify the ballast control operator.
C. Shutdown the transfer operations
D.
Sound the fire alarm.
12. As per the
definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to
carry:
A.
Crude oil and refined oil products at the same
time in different tanks
B.
Refined oil products and chemical products at
the same time in different tanks
C.
A combination of different products at the same
time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
D. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13. As per Marpol
requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight and
above delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning
system using _______________
A.
5000, Sea Water Washing
B.
10000, Fresh Water Washing
C. 20000, Crude Oil Washing
D.
30000, Bilge Water Washing
14. As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400
gross tonnage and above:
A.
Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks
and deep tanks
B. Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak
tank
C.
Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead
or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case
of tankers
D.
Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any
single fuel tank
15. Which of the
following is a man overboard maneuver?
A.
Neil Robertson turn
B. Williamson turn.
C.
Hard port
D.
Hard starboard.
16. The parent
instrument of IMO is:
A.
UNCLOS I, 1958
B.
UNCLOS II, 1960
C.
UNCLOS III, 1974
D. The IMO convention
17. After a person
has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be
A.
walked around until he is back to normal
B.
given several shots of whiskey
C. kept lying down and warm
D.
allowed to do as he wishes
17. Dumping of wastes
at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?
A.
Marpol 73/78
B. London convention
C.
Hongkong convention
D.
Kenya convention
18. The angular
movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is
A.
pitching
B. rolling
C.
heaving
D.
swaying
19. To prevent oil
from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you
should FIRST
A.
open sea suction valves, then start the cargo
pump
B. start the cargo pump, then open sea
suction valves
C.
open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D.
open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
19. The horizontal
port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called
A.
yaw
B. sway
C.
surge
D.
heave
20.Prior to entering
a cargo pump room, you should ensure that
A. the forced ventilating system is operating
B.
the cargo pumps are secured
C.
no mono carbon gases are present
D.
the oily water separator is de-energized
21. Which of the
following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL
convention?
A.
IOPP certificate
B.
Oil Record Book
C.
SOPEP
D.
Safety
Management Certificate.
22. When a vessel is
floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the
A.
metacentric differential
B.
height of the baseline
C. height of the metacenter
D.
righting arm
23. Voyage data
recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required to be
installed on board certain ships as per_____________
A.
ISPS code
B.
ISM code
C. Chapter V of Solas
D.
None of the above
24. Which of the
following is not found inside a lifeboat?
A.
Sea anchor
B.
Fishing tackle
C.
Drinking water cans
D. Life Jacket
25. As per STCW code,
the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under _______
functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency.
A. Seven
B.
Four
C.
Six
D.
Three
26. Under which IMO
convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?
A.
COLREG 1972
B.
SAR 1979
C. SOLAS 1974
D.
SALVAGE 1989
27. As required by
Reg.31 of Annex 1 of Marpol the ODMCS should be provided with a recording
device for ____________ recording the discharge in litres per nautical mile and
total quantity discharged. This discharge should be kept onboard at least for a
period of:
A.
Intermittent, 1 year
B.
Continuous, 1 year
C.
Intermittent, 3 years
D. Continuous, 3 years
28. Changing rescuers
while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
A. without losing the rhythm of
respiration
B.
only with the help of two other people
C.
by not stopping the respiration for more than 5
minutes
D.
at ten minute intervals
29. As per definition
of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A.
Oils and chemicals
B. Oils other than crude oils
C.
Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D.
Mainly chemical products but at times refined
oil products
30. Which of the
following statements is false?
A. A
ship security plan is made by the CSO
B.
A ship security plan is a confidential document.
C.
A ship security plan needs to be approved by the
flag state administration
D. None of the above
31. In the first 24
hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who
are
A.
thirsty
B. sick or injured
C.
wet
D.
awake
32. Which of the
following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds ?
A. Exposure to excessive heat.
B. Mixing of different grades of foam.
C. Exposure to air.
D.
None of the above.
33. In which of the
following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
A.
Oxygen content above 8%
B.
Low water level in deck seal
C.
Low water level in the scrubber tower
D. High scrubber water level
34. As regulation 12
of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be
provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
A.
150 tonnes deadweight
B.
150 gross tonnage
C.
400 tonnes deadweight
D. 400 gross tonnage
35. Life buoy
self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least
______________ in calm waters.
A.
5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C.
30 minutes
D.
60 minutes
36. Emergency
generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of
______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then
___________________should be provided.
A.
zero, cold starting spray
B.
-5, heating arrangements
C. Zero, heating arrangements
D.
-5,cold starting spray
37. Divisions
constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without
passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________
A.
B class divisions
B.
A class divisions
C. A30 class divisions
D.
B 30 class divisions
38. When applying
chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be
depressed about
A.
1/2 inch or less
B.
1/2 to 1 inch
C.
1 to 1 1/2 inches
D. 1 1/2 to 2 inches
39. As per
requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010
with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be
carried in:
A.
Any of the tanks without any restriction
B.
Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
C. Deep tanks in protective locations
D.
Double bottom tanks not extending upto the
ship???s side
40. Which of the
following statements is true?
A.
The
installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.(for
mcq)
B.
The installation of an incinerator is mandatory
on all ships above 400 GRT.
C.
The
installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
D.
The installation of incinerators is mandatory
only for dry ships
41. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank
vessels is to __________.
A.
allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain
life
B.
prevent
outside air from entering the tank
C.
provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
D.
comply with double hull pollution prevention
regulations
42. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the
most critical time during bunkering is when ________
a.
you first start to receive fuel
b.
hoses are being blown down
c. final topping off is occurring
d.
hoses are being disconnected
43. An inert gas
system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.
a.
aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
b.
increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c.
force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo
tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
d. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo
tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
44. Your ship is
sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to
the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should
you take?
a.
Cut the painter line so it will not pull the
liferaft container down.
b.
Swim away from the container so you will not be
in danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter
will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
d.
Manually open the container and inflate the
liferaft with the hand pump.
45. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is
__________.
a. incapable of supporting combustion
because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)
b.
capable of supporting combustion because the
hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (UpperFlammable Limit)
c.
capable of supporting a fire once started
d.
not safe for ballasting
46. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable
than lifeboats due to their __________.
a.
shape
b.
shallow draft
c.
large sail area
d. All of the above
47. What is the generally accepted method of
determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich,
or too lean to support combustion?
a.
Use the open flame test on a small sample that
has been taken from the tank.
b.
Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory
analysis.
c.
Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
d. Use an explosimeter
48. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an
engine room fire, you must __________.
a.
secure the engine room ventilation
b.
secure the machinery in the engine room
c.
evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of the above
49. You are fighting a fire in the electrical
switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then__________.
a.
use a portable foam extinguisher
b.
use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire
hose
c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
d.
determine the cause of the fire
50. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air
which can form an explosive mixture is called the
__________.
a.
auto-ignition point
b.
flash point
c. lower explosive limit (LEL)
d.
threshold limit value (TLV)
51. The deck water
seal of the inert gas system __________.
a.
cools the inert gas and prevents soot from
entering the cargo tanks
b.
acts as an emergency system shutdown when the
inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure inthe hazardous zone
c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon
gasses into nonhazardous areas
d.
relieves sudden large overpressures in the
system
52. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed
with air is __________.
a.
0% to 1%
b. 1% to 10%
c.
10% to 15%
d.
12% to 20%
53. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen
which will stop __________.
a.
oil from flowing out of the tank vent
b.
air from entering the tank vent
c.
vapors from leaving the tank vent
d. flames on deck from entering the
tank vent
SECTION - 2
1. Personnel who are
moving or handling material aboard ship should NOT follow which of the listed
practices?
A.
Signaling that all personnel are clear before
lifting or lowering material.
B.
Examining material for sharp edges or protruding
points before handling.
C.
Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit
entrance of steam, water, or air into a fitting or other equipment.
D. Throwing materials from high places
to the deck
2. Which of the
following statements is true?
A.
Ballast water exchange at mid ocean eliminates
completely the risks associated with introduction of non-native organisms and
pathogens in alien habitats.
B. In the flow through method, the
water pumped through a tank should be at least 3 times the tank volume.
C.
Over pressurization of a tank cannot take place
during the flow through method.
D.
Air pipes on ballast tanks are designed for
continuous overflow.
3. The most common
cause of engine room fires is:
A.
Spontaneous combustion of oily rags
B.
Back fire of boilers
C.
Ignition sources coming in contact with stored
fuel /lubes
D. Oil leakage coming in contact with
hot exposed surfaces
4. A fuel tank on a
barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being "Safe for Men"
and "Safe for fire". This condition may change if:
A.
the ambient temperature changes
B.
a product leaks into the certified tank
C.
muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off
additional vapors
D. all of the above
5. As per MARPOL annex-1,
the ???instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content??? means:
A.
The rate of discharge of oil-water mixture in
litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the
same instant
B. The rate of discharge of oil in
litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the
same instant
C.
The average rate of discharge of oil-water
mixture in litres per hour divided by the average speed of the ship in knots
D.
The average rate of discharge of oil mixture in
litres per hour divided by the average speed of the ship in knots
6. Which of the
following statements about LRIT is False?
A.
Regulation on LRIT is included in Chapter V of
SOLAS
B.
LRIT has longer range than AIS
C. LRIT, like AIS, is a broadcast
system that transmits information about ship's identity, location date and time
of position to all in range
D.
LRIT and AIS should not have any interface
7. Pyrophoric
ignition may occur_____________
A. On introduction of air in tanks
deficient in oxygen.
B.
In oxygen rich atmospheres.
C.
In nitrogen rich atmospheres.
D.
Only when an ignition source is introduced
8. Which of the
following conditions need NOT be satisfied while discharging oil or oil
mixtures from ships into the sea?
A.
The ship must be proceeding en route
B.
The
ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
C.
The oily mixture is processed through an oil
filtering equipment as per Reg. 14 of Annex-1
D.
The oil content of the effluent without dilution
does not exceed 15 ppm
9. As per MARPOL
annex ???I requirements:
A.
Only crudes and petrochemical products come
within the definition of Oil
B. All items mentioned in Appendix 1 of
annex 1 come under the category of oil
C.
Only crude oil and black oils have restrictions
on pumping out, the remaining products can be pumped out at sea in limited
quantities
D.
Anything having viscosity greater than that of
water is considered to be oil
10. As per Indian
Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following entries should be made in
official log book of ships?
A.
Every case of illness, hurt or injury to a
member of the crew
B.
Every case of death on board
C.
Every birth happening on board
D. All of the above
11. Which of the
following instruments set out carrier's obligations and liabilities with
respect to carriage of goods?
A.
Hague Rules
B.
Hamburg Rules
C.
Hague- Visby rules
D. All of the above
12. Where would you
find a list of the lifesaving equipment onboard your supply boat?
A.
Ship's articles
B.
Station bill
C. Certificate of Inspection
D.
U. S. Coast Guard Regulations
13. Which of the
following statements is false?
A.
Purging is an essential operation to carry out
before gas freeing is done prior to man entry.
B.
Purging makes sure that the mixture in a cargo
tank never enters the flammable range, when air is introduced.
C.
Purging can be carried out by both displacement
and dilution methods.
D. None of the above
14. When
administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to
A.
use the mouth-to-mouth method
B. clear airways
C.
use rhythmic pressure method
D.
know all approved methods
14. When two people
are administering CPR to a victim, how many times per minute should the chest
be compressed?
A. 15
B.
30
C.
45
D.
80
15. Which of the
following codes has been issued under both SOLAS and MARPOL conventions?
A.
STCW code
B. IMDG code
C.
IGC code
D.
ISM code
16. Dispatch means
A.
A.owner to charter <<>>
after<<>>
B.
owner
to charter <<>> before<<>>
C.
C.Charter to owner <<>>
after<<>>
D.
Charter to owner <<>>
before<<>>
17..convention not
yet forced
A.
.BWM
B. ……………..
C. ………….
D. ……………..
18.How many annex in
MARPOL including newly added
A. 6
B.
8
C. 7
19.Who provide
charter to ship
A. .Agent
B.
.Broker
C. .Chandler
D.
.None
20.Sewage
(disinfected )and communited sewage can be discharged from how many Miles
A. 3 NM from land provided if enroute
21. Helicopter convention
a.
A.MARPOL
b.
B.Indian aviation
c. C.SOLAS
22. Certificate of
insurance on financial <<>> during bunkering oil spill damage comes
under
A. A.CLC
1969 convention
B. B.Marpol
convention
C.
C.Bunker convention
D. D.CLC
1992
23. According to
Indian merchant ship act 1958, registrar of ports of Mumbai,Chennai,kolkatta
A. A.DG
shipping
B. B.MMD
C.
C.Principle officer respective MMD
D. D.surveyer
24. International
shore connection under which convention
A. A.ISPS
B. B.ISM
C.
C.LLA
D. solas
25.What is the
minimum percentage of oxygen required before making an entry into an enclosed
space?
A.
20%
B.
18%
C.
11%
D. 21%
26.Selective
catalytic reduction is a secondary method for reduction of which of the
following emissions?
A.
SOX
B. NOX
C.
Carbon oxides
D. All
of the above
27. Air is removed
from refrigration sytem by (1)________ at reciver after (2)________(3)________
Gas in receiver. Humidificaton is process of adding water/moiture to discharged
airof AC blower. Demumidification is process of removing water/moisture from
air supplied from AC system. For colecting gas in receiver you need to close
the outlet valve of receiver with compressor running
1.PURGING
2.COLLECTING . 3. CONDENSATING
28. One of the
important precautions against cold injuries and frost bite would be:
A.
Wear
several layers of light clothing rather than one heavy layer of clothing
B.
Wear tight fitting gloves
C.
Rub numb areas of body to warm them up
D.
Work while facing the wind
29. Where would you
look to find out what your duties are during a fire?
A.
Ship's articles
B. Station bill
C.
Certificate of Inspection
D.
U.S. Coast Guard Regulations
30. Ship Security
Alert System is a requirement under __________________
A.
Part B of ISPS Code
B. SOLAS Chapter XI-2
C.
SUA convention, 1988
D.
None of the above
31. When
administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should continue the
victim's ventilation rate at how many inflations per minute?
A.
4
B.
8
C. 12
D.
20
32. Freight paid by
charterers on a quantity of cargo short-shipped, i.e quantity agreed upon but
not loaded by the charterer, is called:
A.
Pro-rata freight
B.
Back Freight
C.
Dead
freight
D.
None of the above
33. Which of the
following extinguishing medium should never be used when fighting fire
involving magnesium?
a.
Halon
b.
Dry Chemical powder
c. Water
d.
CO2
34. Under which
Convention is Oil Pollution Insurance Certificate (OPIC) a statutory oil
pollution insurance cover requirement?
A.
CLC
B.
LLMC
C.
Fund convention
D.
Athens Convention
35. In refrigeration
system vegetable room and meat rooms are maintained at different
A.
Different
expansion valves
B.
By putting solenoid valves
C.
By boiling the refrigerant at different
pressures
D.
By using smaller evaporator
36. The working
duration of a 1200 litres SCBA bottle, after allowing for a reserve of 10 mins
is____________________ (if
1800litres =40mins)
A.
30 mins
B.
40 mins
C. 20 mins
D.
50 mins
37. Principle of fire
fighting onboard is
A.
* watering of fire
B. * starving of fire
C. * cooling
D. * smothering of fire
38. The number within
bracket of a resolution, say A.526 (13) refers to ____.
a.
The serial No. of the resolution.
b.
The
session No. in which the resolution was adopted.
c.
The sub paragraph of the resolution.
d.
The No. of clauses in the resolution
39. Certificate of insurance or other financial
security in respect of civil liability for bunker oil pollution damage is
issued under what?
A.
CLC 1969.
B.
MARPOL convention.
C. Bunker convention 2001.
D. CLC
1992.
40. Cyclic Up & Down Movement of Vessel Along
the VERTICAL AXIS…
a. Heaving,
b.
yawing,
c.
Swaying,
d.
pitching
41. The stretcher
normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds,
pump-rooms etc., is known as _____________________
A.
Williamson stretcher
B.
Neil Hobson stretcher
C.
Neil
Robertson stretcher
D.
Stokes stretcher
42. Rolling is the
angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
A. Longitudinal
B.
Transverse
C.
Vertical
D.
Centerline
43. When entering a
compartment which is on fire,
A.
you must wear rubber gloves
B.
the
flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog
C.
a straight stream of water should be used to
cool the door
D.
a straight stream of water should be used to
cool the fire fighters
44. When the height
of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity,
the metacentric height is equal to
A.
height of the metacenter
B.
height of the center of gravity
C.
same as half the height of the metacenter
D. zero
45. The emergency
generator should be capable of being started and be able to supply required
load within a maximum of ________________
A.
30 seconds
B.
1 min
C. 45 seconds
D.
2 mins
46. Which of the
following kinds of total flooding system is most suited for very large spaces
like car carrier car decks?
A.
High pressure multi cylinder type CO2
installation
B. Low pressure bulk storage tank type
CO2 installation
C.
Low expansion foam systems
D.
Fixed pressure water spraying systems
47. You are the 4th
engineer of a ship. Your 3rd engineer handsover the watch to you and informs
you that the OWS is running with the ppm showing as zero. After taking over the
watch and during your rounds you find out that the rinsing fresh water to 15
ppm device was crack open. After closing the same you find that the ppm rose to
15 and the OWS stopped after giving alarm. What should you do?
A.
Nothing, as Marpol regulations are satisfied
till the oily water is being pumped through OWS and oil content is below 15 ppm
B.
Should
suspend the operation immediately, inform the Chief engineer about the same and
take appropriate action to restore correct OWS operation
C.
Should never touch OWS and any stoppages to be
informed either to Chief Engineer or 2nd engineer
D.
If no visible traces of oil are seen on the sea
surface and oily water mixture is being pumped through an OWS, then there is no
harm in pumping out with fresh water crack open, to keep the OWS running as it
may give false alarm without Fresh water. This is a practical approach to run
OWS without any trouble without violating Marpol regulations
48. All entries in
the Oil record Book part-I are to be:
At least in English, Spanish or national language
At least in English, Spanish or French
At least in English or Spanish
At least in
English or national language
49. Plasma reduction
system is a secondary method of reduction of which of the following kinds of
emissions?
A.
SOX
B.
Greenhouse gases
C. NOX
D.
All of the above
50. Back flow towards
machinery spaces of cargo vapours in an Inert gas system is prevented
by_____________________
A.
Pressure vacuum breaker
B.
High velocity vents
C. Deck water seal
D.
Pressure vacuum valves
51. Which of the following
is not a requirement under MARPOL Annex VI, for new engines?
A.
All engines above 130 KW to be tested and issued
with EIAPP certificate and Nox Technical file.
B.
Life
boat engines and emergency diesel engines to be also tested and issued with
EIAPP certificate and Nox Technical File
C.
Periodical verification of EIAPP certificate is
mandatory even when there has been no modification in the engine
D.
Engines installed prior to the Nox technical
code being applicable will not be subject to certification and testing unless
they undergo major conversion
52. An oil record
book Part-I shall be retained onboard for a period of:
A.
1 year since the last entry has been made
B.
1 year since the first entry has been made
C.
3 years since the first entry has been made
D.
3
years since the last entry has been made
53. The life boat
engine should be capable of starting at _______________________
A.
-15
deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
B.
-5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 5 mins
C.
-5 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
D.
0 deg Celsius ambient temperature within 2 mins
54. A straight stream
of water should be used to extinguish
A.
galley grease fires
B.
fuel oil fires
C. burning bedding materials
D.
a fire in the paint locker
55. The maximum
capacity of an Oil fuel tank for any ship built on or after 1st Aug. 2010 as
restricted by Marpol, Annex 1 is: (minimum capacity 600m3)
A.
600 m3
B.
1200 m3
C.
2500
m3
D.
3000 m3
56. Each fire pump on
a MODU must have a pressure gage located
A.
at the pump discharge
B.
at the manifold connection
C.
at each fire station discharge
D.
at the pump station
57. Which of the
devices listed must be used in conjunction with the portable in-line foam
proportioner to produce foam?
A.
A plain or common fire hose nozzle
B.
The
mechanical foam nozzle
C.
Any low velocity applicator
D.
An all-purpose nozzle
58. As per the Indian
Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which of the following statements about ownership
of Indian Flag ships is False?
A.
A company or body established by or under any
Central or State Act, which has its principal business in India, may be
registered as owner by its name
B.
Joint owners shall be considered as constituting
one person
C. A person can be registered as owner
of a fractional part of a share in a ship, the number of shares being ten
D.
Not more than the names of Ten individuals shall
be entitled to registered at the same time as joint owners of any one ship
59. The external
flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated
A.
before you enter the water
B.
after
you enter the water
C.
after one hour in the water
D.
after you notice that your suit is losing
buoyancy
SECTION -3
1. Following should not be done to a
person in frostbite.
a.
Rubbing
effected area.
b.
Ask him to rest.
c.
Remove wet cloths
d.
Give him something warm to drink.
2. Procedure to obtain radio medical
advice can be found in _____.
a.
First aid box.
b.
Code of safe working procedure.
c.
Safety management manual.
d.
The
ship captain medical guide.
3. EEDI is the Technical measure
adopted by IMO to reduce ___.
a.
Greenhouse
gas.
b.
SOx
c.
NOx
d.
None of the above
4. What Agreement of hire called, in
which the owner agreed to transport an agreed volume of cargo over a specific
period. The charter designates cargoes and loading date but owner nominate
suitable vessel which are not normally named in agreement.
a.
Time charter.
b.
Voyage charter.
c.
Bare boat charter.
d.
Contract
of frightment.
5. When performing CPR, we must do
chest compression_____.
a.
12
to 15 times/min.
b.
16 to 18 times/min.
c.
2 to 5 times/min.
d.
18 to 19 times/min.
6. Movement of ship about an imaginary
line joining aft and fore perpendicular is?
a.
Pitching
b.
Heaving
c.
Sway
d.
roll
7. Which of the following anti fouling
paint is an accepted alternative to now banned TBT based paint.
a.
DOT based anti fouling paint.
b.
Arsenic based anti fouling paint.
c.
Mercury based anti fouling paint.
d.
Copper
based anti fouling paint.
8. Oil or oily mixture discharge into
the sea from E/R of ships of 10,000 GRT & above, in special areas is
_______.
a.
Not allowed.
b.
Allowed,
provided ship is proceeding en route & discharge through oil filtering
equipment with oil content less than 15ppm except in Atlantic Ocean.
c.
Allowed, provided ship is proceeding en route
& discharge through oil filtering equipment with oil content less than 5ppm
except in Atlantic Ocean.
d.
Allowed but outside 12Nm from the Nearest Land.
9. Which of the following Convention is
also known as Minimum Standard Convention?
a.
Maritime Labor Convention.
b.
ILO
convention no. 147.
c.
STCW Convention 1978.
d.
STCW Convention 1995.
10. ORB has to be regularly updated
without delay and each completed page has to be _____.
a.
Signed by officer in charge and chief engineer.
b.
Signed
by officer in charge and Master.
c.
Signed by chief engineer and master.
d.
Signed by chief officer and chief engineer.
11. Number of maximum sprinkler head in a
section should be _____.(minimum = 150)
a.
200
b.
150
c.
100
d.
250
12. Each section on a sprinkler system should not contain more than _____sprinkler
heads.
a.
200
b.
150
c.
100
d.
250
24. First rain water collected over canopy
rain water harvesting arrangement has to be ____.
a.
Rationed to each member.
b.
Given to sick and injured.
c.
Thrown
overboard.
d.
Given to any one member.
25. In which of the following condition FD fan of
Inert gas generator will be tripped?
a.
Low sea water level in Deck water seal
b. Low sea water level in scrubber
tower
(and two
more options... there)
26. Under
following,which is not mandatory
A.
LSA
B.
FSS
C.
BLU
D.
FTP
27. sewage air
compressor, freq of starting
A. A.every
18 hrs
B. B.Every
24 hrs
C.
C.Continously
D. D.Once
in two weeks
28. the resourse
zone, not a security zone is
A.
A.Inland water
B.
B.terristrial water
C. C.Contigeous areas
D.
D.Continental self
29. Demurrage means
A.
A.Charter to owner before time expired
B. Charter to owner after time expired
C.
C.owner to charter before time expired
D.
owner to charter after time expired
30. What is to be
checked 1st when entering into dry dock?
A. engine room crane
B.
engine room lift
C.
gantrry crane
D.
all of the above.
31. Intact capacity
of foam min capacity.
A.
5lt.
B. 9lt.
C.
20lt.
D.
none
32. Intact stability
book is provided by...:
A.
a..
SOLAS
B.
b.. MARPOL
C.
c..Load Line Convention
D.
d.. Load line Protocol
33. Shipboard
incineration of which of the following substances is allowed?
A.
Poly chlorinated Biphenyls(PCB s)
B.
Refined petroleum products containing halogen
residues
C. Sewage sludge
D.
Cargo residues(of Annex I, II and III of MARPOL
convention)
34. Compliance with
which of the following ILO conventions is checked during Port State Control
Inspections?
A.
ILO convention no.134-Prevention of accidents
convention
B.
ILO
convention no.147- Minimum Standards Convention
C.
ILO convention no.178 -Labor inspection
convention
D.
All of the above
35. A coastal can take necessary action on
the high seas to mitigate, prevent or eliminate
danger of OIL pollution to its coastline
following a maritime casualty. Which IMO instrument
guarantees this right to the coastal state?
A.
UNCLOS
B.
MARPOL 73/78
C. INTERVENTION 1969
D.
London Convention
36. Probably the
largest amount of information covering the various aspects of oil spill
response in one place on the net. Which of the following codes is mandatory for
chemical tankers constructed on or after 1July 1986? ( before July 1986 for
BCH code)
A. IGC code
B. BCH code
C. IBC code
D. IMDG code
37. A clean ballast
tank is one which:(if SBT option A)
a.
Is not allowed to carry any oil cargo and solely
to be used for the purpose of carriage
of ballast water
of ballast water
b. Is used for the carriage of oil
cargo, but has to be cleaned thoroughly prior carriage of
ballast water during ballast voyage
ballast water during ballast voyage
c.
Is allowed to carry some white and clean oil
cargoes and has to be cleaned up thoroughly
for the carriage of ballast water
for the carriage of ballast water
d.
Is a tank which was previously being used for
the carriage of oil cargo, but was
converted to a ballast tank during last dry-docking, but still has a common pumping system
for remaining cargo tanks and the converted clean ballast tank
converted to a ballast tank during last dry-docking, but still has a common pumping system
for remaining cargo tanks and the converted clean ballast tank
38. A representative sample of fuel oil
delivered on board during bunkering is to be retained on
board ________________________
A.
For a period of 6 months
B.
Till the time the oil is substantially consumed
C.
For a period of 12 months
D. Till the time the oil is
substantially consumed but not less than 12 months
39. The validity of
which of the following certificates is not 5 years?
A.
Safety equipment certificate
B.
Load line certificate
C. Tonnage certificate
D.
Safety radio telegraphy certificate
40. U r fighting with
fire with jet hose and multiple fire where wil u first impinge water
a)
Direct jet on mid of fire
b)
Direct gog jet on mid of fire
c)
Top of fire to absorb some heat
d) Bottom of bulkhed
41) Primary Element
Of Isps Part A Mandatory Section Comes Under –
A. -SOLAS XI,
B.
-MARPOL,
C.
-SUA CONVENTION 1988..
42. anti – static
additives in petroleum products.
A.
Increase conductivity
B. Reduce conductivity
C.
Increase accumulation of charge
D.
Reduce friction drag
43. what declare
under SOLAS convection
A.
CRB
B.
ORB
C.
Procedure and arrangement manual
D. Bulk carrier booklet
44.what coastal zone
can extend beyond 200nm from baseline.
A.
Exclusive economic zone
B.
Continuers’ zone
C.
Fisher zone
D. Continental zone
45. DPA requires
under
A.
STCW code
B.
ISPC
C.
MARPOL73/78
D. ISM code
46. latest annex VI
incorporate the marpol convention
A.
Annex 6
B.
Annex 7
C. Annex 8
D.
Annex 9
47. minimum no of
life bouys of cargo ship of 200m and more.
A.
12
B. 14
C.
18
D.
24
48. EEBD service time
A.
15
B.
10
C.
20
D.
30
49. cause liability
of ship occurs in case of loss of life.
A.
CORE 1974
B.
CLC 1969
C.
FUND 1971
D.
LLMC
1976
50. annex I
regulation 12 sludge takes concentration
A.
Bilge pump to OWS
B.
No
line direct connection to OBD other than discharge give in regulation 13
C.
No direct connection to OBD
D.
Have direct connection to OBD all the valve to
be close and sealed
51. the presence of
toxic gases is measured by
A. Explosive meter
B.
O2 analyser
C.
LEL
D.
none
52. immersion suit
donning time without assistance
A.
30sec
B.
1min
C.
3min
D. 2min
53. Annex I collection
of residue tank washing and also oily mixture to be
A.
Bilge tank
B.
Sludge tank
C.
Oily bilge tank
D. Slop tank
55. class D fire
A.
Fire
in metal
B.
Fire in liquid
C.
Fire in electrical system
D.
None
56. minimum capacity
of SCBA
A.
1800L
B.
1200L
C.
1500L
D.
600L
57. parent instrument
for the mandatory ISM code
A.
SOLAS CH-IV
B.
SOLAS & MARPOL
C.
SOLAS
CH-XI
D.
UNCLDS
58. A state party to
treaty or convention after the convention been recognized and signed by other
parties and enter into force this action is called.
A. Ratification
B.
Acceptance
C.
Approval
D.
Accusation
59. in special areas
any discharge of oil and oil mixtures from machinery spaces
A.
Prohibited
B.
Enroute and min 12NM
C.
En route and min 50NM
D.
En route with oil filtering equipment
60. standard
discharge connection flange as per MARPOL ANNEX I Regulation( od-pcd-th)
A.
200,185,15
B.
215,183,20
C.
205,185,50
D.
200,183,20
DG. SHIPPING SECTION - 4
1. Recharging a previously used
cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by
______________.
a.
authorized fire equipment servicing personnel
only
b. replacing the propellant cartridge
and refilling it with pyrotechnic powder
c.
puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
d.
recharging the cartridge and then refilling it
with powder
2. A load line for a ship is assigned
by the ______________.
a.
Port health inspector
b.
Assessors and Arbitrators
c.
Institute of Marine Engineers
d. A recognized classification society
approved by the Administration.
e.
Company of Master Mariners.
3. In the event of a galley fire on
board a general cargo ship, most dry chemical or carbon dioxide portable
extinguishers are automatically activated through the action of a stainless
steel cable, spring and a ____________.
(a)
fusible link of tritium, gallium arsenide alloy
(b)
stack switch with sensors
(c)
thermostat of bimetallic type
(d)
pyrostat with activation of pyrotechnics
(e)
none
of the above
4. The stability of a vessel is
normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full because the
_____________.
(A)
center
of gravity is lowered
(B)
center of buoyancy is lowered
(C)
reserve buoyancy is unchanged
(D)
hull freeboard is increased
5. To operate a portable foam fire
extinguisher, you should _____________.
(a)
puncture the CO2 cartridge
(b)
open the handwheel
(c)
pull the pin and squeeze the trigger
(d)
turn
it upside down and bump the deck
6. If deck cargo is carried, it should
be stowed so that it _____________.
(a)
is not higher than 30cm above the deck
(b)
does
not block access to the fire station hydrant
(c)
will cover no more than 25 % of deck space
(d)
will be easily visible from the bridge
(e)
is sufficient to enable the cadet to stroll
through
(f)
gives a clear view to the bridge for navigation
7. Which of the listed systems related
to an engineer's signal alarm panel is required to be indicated by a
continuously illuminated light?
(a)
Deaerating tank low level
(b)
Shaft alley bilge high level
(c)
Port
or starboard steering gear motor running
(d)
No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure
8. Which fire extinguisher is most
prone to freezing when stowed in low temperatures?
(a)
Halon 1211
(b)
Carbon dioxide
(c)
Foam
(d)
Dry chemical
9. Bunker "C", a grade
"E" combustible liquid, will _______.
(A)
give off flammable vapors below 800F (26.70C)
(B)
have a Reid vapor pressure of 14 psi (96.5 kPa)
or more
(C)
self-ignite at temperatures below 150˚F (65.50C)
(D)
have
a flash point of 150̊˚F (65.5̊C) or more
10. Which of the following statements
describes the advantage of using a Halon fire extinguisher versus a CO2 fire
extinguisher?
(A)
Halon cools rather than smothers a fire.
(B)
Halon
is more effective than CO2.
(C)
Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires.
(D)
Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all
conditions.
11. You may improve a vessel's stability
by ___________.
(A)
keeping
the fuel tanks topped off
(B)
increasing the free surface effect
(C)
keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
(D)
keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
12. In order to find out which lifeboat
you are assigned, you should look at the _____________.
(A)
Certificate of Inspection
(B)
Muster
stations Chart
(C)
Ship's Articles
(D)
Fire Control Plan
13. Which of the following statements is
true concerning Halon 1301?
(A)
The agent is extremely toxic in any
concentration.
(B)
The
agent leaves no residue.
(C)
The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering.
(D)
All of the above.
14. What is the usual effect of moving
weight from the main deck to a position lower in the vessel?
(A)
The
stability of the vessel is increased.
(B)
The trim of the vessel is changed substantially.
(C)
The stability of the vessel is significantly
decreased.
(D)
The vessel will list in proportion to the volume
of the cargo shifted.
15. The inclining experiment conducted on a
merchant ship is the method for determining the exact location of the
__________.
(A)
ship's displacement in seawater
(B)
position
of the ship's center of gravity
(C)
position of the ship's center of buoyancy
(D)
position of the ship's metacenter
16. Vessel stability can be adversely
affected by ___________.
A.
increasing
the free surface effect
B.
decreasing the free surface effect
C.
ballasting down by the bow
D.
ballasting down by the stern
17. While wearing a demand-type
self-contained breathing apparatus the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of the
following conditions does this indicate?
A.
There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in
the air cylinder.
B.
There is approximately 500 psi (3.5 MPa) of
pressure left in the air cylinder.
C.
The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated
area.
D.
All
of the above.
18. You are replacing a section of heavy
piping on deck and using a chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of the following
precautions should be taken to prevent personal injury?
A.
Position several men under the pipe so they can catch
it if it falls.
B.
Attach
lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady the load.
C.
Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent
the load from hitting the deck.
D.
Have a first aid kit at the job site.
19. With regards to the load line marks,
the reason for the placement of mark "WNA" is ______________.
A.
more severe weather is expected in the North
Atlantic in winter
B.
more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic
in winter
C.
less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in
winter
D.
all
of the above
20. Many uninspected vessels require load
lines to indicate the maximum ______________.
A.
reserve buoyancy under any condition
B.
amidship's
draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged
C.
angle of reduced freeboard for subdivision
calculations
D.
freeboard for the light ship displacement
21. The safe and efficient use of the face
piece of a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus is directly
influenced by ____________.
A.
the donning of the facepiece
B.
the stowing of the facepiece
C.
he maintenance of the facepiece
D. all of the above
22. immediately after
abandon ship vessel, look out in life raft for
A.
Survivors
in water
B.
Food and water
C.
Land
D.
none
23. What is placed on
the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded
by the wind or overturned?
A. A.Ballast bags
B.
B.A keel
C.
C.Strikes
D.
D.Sea anchor
24. Highest body of
IMO…
A.
Council,
B.
Assembly,
C.
Safety Committee
D.
Pollution prevention committee
25. Executive Body Of
IMO…
A. Council,
B.
Assembly,
C.
Safety Committee
D.
Pollution prevention committee
NEW SECTION - 1
1. In the event of a
collision, watertight integrity may be lost if _____________.
(A) the
sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing
(B) the dogs on a manhole cover are secure
(C) you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
(D) you operate the dewatering system from a flooded
compartment
2.The hand break of
a life boat which is ___________ ?
A.Manually disengaged when hoisting a boat
B.applied
by dropping the counterweighted lever
C.controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism
D.automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
3. During loading and
discharging operation in addition o when the cargo tanks have been properly
filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas
pressure of________.
a. 50 millimeters of water pressure
b. 25 millimeters of water pressure
c. 100
millimeters of water pressure
d. 5 millimeters of water pressure
4. The physical data
term on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) ‘hat indicates if the vapor formed
by the material is lighter or heavier than air is called _______
A. Vapor pressure
B. Vapor gravity
C. Vapor level
D. Vapor
density
Which of the following certificates issued to a ship does
not have predetermined validity for limited period?
A. International Load Line Certificate
B. International tonnage certificate (it is valid until ship is sent for scrap.)
C. Cargo Ship safety certificate
D. Safety Management Certificate
which of these
devices prevents the back flow of hydrocarbon??
A. pv breaker
B. pv valve
C. deck water seal
D. scrubber
The flammable limit of methane by volume is 5%to 15%,if the combustible
gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a compartment containing methane a
flammable vapour concentration at the sample point is
1. 0.5% by volume
2. 2.5% by volume
3. 7.5% by volume
4. 50% by volume
The explosive range
of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air ,This mean a vapor/air mixture of
1. 3% methane by volume is too rich to burn
2. 20% methane by volume is too lean to burn
3. 10% methane by volume is too rich to burn
4. 5%
methane by volume will give a reading of 100% LEL on a combustible gas
indicator
Intact stability booklet comes under
1.Solas,
2.Marpol
3.Loadline convention
4.Tonnage convention
2. Jurisdiction over ships in high seas lies with
a. nearest coastal state
b. port state of last port
c. port state of next port
d. flagstate
Every U.S crude oil
tanker with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an
inert gas system if the tonnage is more than
1.100,000DWT(Long tons)
2.100,000DWT(metric
tons)
3.50,000DWT(Long tons)
4.50,000DWT(metric tons)
Damage suffered by a
passenger in vessel
1.LLMC 1976 Convention
2.LLC 1969
3.Athens
convention
4.Fund 1971
Emergency Steering
Test and pre- arrival/pre departure steering tests are requirements under: (solas chapter v reg 26 para 4)
A. COLREG 72
B. SOLAS Chapter
V
C. Under USCG rules only in US waters
D. INMARSAT C 1976
Which requirement
regarding Oil Record Book Part ???I is correct?
A. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and Master
B. All entries are to be signed by Chief engineer and each
completed page by the Master
C. All
entries are to be signed by officer or officers in charge concerned and each
completed page by the Master
D. All entries are to be signed by officer or officers in
charge concerned, the Chief engineer and the Master
Which of the
following IMO conventions has entered into force?
A. Hong Kong Convention
B. Nairobi WRC 2007 ( for shipwreck in Kenya)
C. BWM Convention 2004
D. Bunkers Convention 2001 *
Post Nox emission
test bed trial and approval of an engine, periodic Nox emission limit
verification is normally done by:
A. Emission tests at regular intervals
B. Engine parameters/settings check
method (for single choice)
C. By running the engine at full
load and sending a sample of exhaust gas for analysis
D. By checking emission monitors
installed on exhaust outlet
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